1. A nurse is assessing a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which of the following assessment findings by the nurse is probably unrelated to the AAA?
a) pulsatile abdominal mass
b) hyperactive bowel sounds in the area
c) systolic bruit over the area of the mass
d) subjective sensation of "heart beating" in the abdomen
2. A 60 year old male client comes into the emergency department with complaints of crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to his shoulder and left arm. The admitting diagnosis is acute myocardial infarction (MI). Immediate admission orders include oxygen by nasal cannula at 4 L/m, blood work, a chest radiograph, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG), and a 2 mg of morphine sulfate given intravenously. The nurse should first:
3. If the client who was admitted for MI develops cardiogenic shock, which characteristic sign should the nurse expect to observe?
a) oliguria
b) bradycardia
c) elevated blood pressure
d) fever
4. The physician orders continuous intravenous nitroglycerin infusion for the client with MI. Essential nursing actions include which of the following?
a) obtaining an infusion pump for the medication
b) monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours
c) monitoring urine output hourly
d) obtaining serum potassium levels daily
5. When teaching the client with MI, the nurse explains that the pain associated with MI is caused by:
a) left ventricular overload
b) impending circulatory collapse
c) extracellular electrolyte imbalances
d) insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle
6. Aspirin is administered to the client experiencing an MI because of its:
a) antipyretic action
b) antithrombolytic action
c) antiplatelet action
d) analgesic action
7. Which of the following is an expected outcome for a client on the second day of hospitalization after an MI? The client:
a) has minimal chest pain
b) can identify risk factors for MI
c) agrees to participate in a cardiac rehabilitation program
d) can perform personal self-care activities without pain
8. After an MI, the hospitalized client is taught to move the legs about while resting in bed. This type of exercise is recommended primarily to help:
a) prepare the client for ambulation
b) promote urinary and intestinal elimination
c) prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation
d) decrease the likelihood of decubitus ulcer formation
9. Which of the following is an uncontrollable risk factors that has been linked to the development of CAD?
a) exercise
b) obesity
c) stress
d) heredity
10. Crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate which of the following?
a) cyanosis
b) bronchospasm
c) airway narrowing
d) fluid filled alveoli
11. In which of the following positions should the nurse place a client with suspected heart failure?
a) semi-sitting (low-fowler's position)
b) lying on the right side ( sim's position)
c) sitting almost upright ( high fowler's position)
d) lying on the back with the head lowered (trendelenburg position)
12. Digoxin is administered intravenously to a client with heart failure, primarily because the drug acts to:
a) dilate coronary artery
b) increase myocardial contractility
c) decrease cardiac dysrhytmias
d) decrease electrical conductivity in the heart
13. The nurse's discharge teaching plan for the client with congestive heart failure would stress the significance of which of the following?
a) maintaining a high-fiber diet
b) walking 2 miles every day
c) obtaining daily weights at the same time each day
d) remaining sedentary for most of the day
14. Essential hypertension would be diagnosed in a 40 year-old man whose blood pressure would be:
a) 120/90 mmHg
b) 130/85 mmHg
c) 140/90 mmHg
d) 160/80 mHg
15. The nurse understands that a priority nursing diagnosis for the client with hypertension would be:
a) pain
b) deficient fluid volume
c) impaired skin integrity
d) ineffective health maintenance
16. The most important long-term goal for a client with hypertension would be to:
a) renal insufficiency and failure
b) valvular heart disease
c) endocarditis
d) peptic ulcer disease
17. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse teach the client with unstable angina to report immediately to her physician?
a) a change in the pattern of her pain
b) pain during sexual activity
c) pain during an argument with her husband
d) pain during or after an activity such as lawn-mowing
18. The physician refers the client with unstable angina for a cardiac catheterization. The nurse explains to the client that this procedure is being used in this specific case to:
a) open and dilate blocked coronary artery
b) assess the extent of arterial blockage
c) bypass obstructed vessels
d) assess the functional adequacy of the valves and heart muscle
19. The nurse teaches the client with angina about the common expected side effects of nitroglycerin, including:
a) headache
b) high blood pressure
c) shortness of breath
d) stomach cramps
20. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets begin to work within 1 to 2 minutes. How should the nurse instruct the client to use the drug when chest pain occurs?
a) take one tablet every 2 to 5 minutes until chest pain stops
b) take one tablet and rest for 10 minutes. Call the physician if pain persists after 10 minutes
c) take one tablet, then an additional tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three tablets. Call the physician if pain persists after three tablets
d) take one tablet. If the pain persists after 5 minutes, take two tablets. If pain still persists 5 minutes later, call the physician
21. While the nurse is providing preoperative teaching, the client says, "I hate the idea of being an invalid after they cut off my leg." The nurse most therapeutic response will be:
a) you'll still have one good leg to use
b) tell me more about how you're feeling
c) let's finish the preoperative teaching
d) you're fortunate to have a wife who can take care of you
22. The room for the client who has had an amputation should contain which emergency equipment when the client returns from surgery?
a) suction equipment
b) emergency cart
c) airway
d) tourniquet
23. The client has had a below-the-knee amputation secondary to arterial occlusive disease. The nurse is instructing the client in stump care. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that she understands how to implement her plan of care?
a) I should inspect the incision carefully when I change the dressing every other day
b) I should wash the incision, dry it, and apply moisturizing lotion daily
c) I should rewrap the stamp as often as needed
d) I should elevate the stump on pillows to decrease swelling
24. The nurse has been assigned to a a client with Buerger's disease (Thromboangitis obliterans). Which of the following anatomic areas are most common affected by this vascular condition?
a) hands and fingers
b) lower legs and feet
c) head and neck
d) lower back
25. A 30 year-old male client is admitted with Buerger's disease. Which of the following factors has increased the client's risk for development of Buerger's disease?
a) history of cigarette smoking
b) occupational exposure to radiation
c) age and gender
d) history of hypertension
26. The primary goal for the client with Buerger's disease is to prevent
a) embolus formation
b) fat embolus formation
c) thrombus formation
d) thrombophlebitis
27. A client with Buerger's disease smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. Smoking cessation is critical or the client may lose the affected part. When helping a client change behavior it is important to know the client's:
a) ability to attend support groups
b) goals of the treatment
c) perception of the behavior
d) motivation
28. Because smoking cessation is a critical strategy for the client diagnosed with Buerger's disease, the nurse anticipates that the client will go home with a prescription for which of the following medications?
a) nicotine ( nicontrol)
b) nitroglycerin
c) furosimide ( lasix)
d) ibuprofen
29. Raynauld's disease is known as arteriospastic disease and is seen most often in:
a) young women
b) old women
c) old men
d) young men
30. The nurse has been assigned to a client with Raynauld's disease. The nurse realizes that the underlying etiology of Raynauld's disease is unknown but that is characterized by:
a) episodic vasospastic disorder of the small arteries
a) episodic vasospastic disorder of the small veins
a) episodic vasospastic disorder of the capillaries
a) episodic vasospastic disorder oof the aorta
31. The client with Raynauld's disease complains of cold and numbness in her fingers. The nurse assesses the client for effects of vasoconstriction. Which of the following is an early sign of vasoconstriction?
a) cyanosis
b) gangrene
c) pallor
d) rubor
32. The nurse should instruct a client who has been diagnosed with Raynauld's disease to:
a) immerse her hands in cold water during an episode
b) wear light garments when the temperature gets below 50F (10C)
c) wear gloves when handling ice or frozen foods
d) live in cold climate
33. Which of the following clients is at risk for varicose veins?
a) a client who has had a cerebral vascular accident
b) a client who has had anemia
c) a client who has had thrombophlebitis
d) a client who has had transient ischemia attack
34. The nurse assesses that a client's pulse pressure is decreasing. This would be evaluated by calculating the:
a) force exerted against an arterial wall
b) difference between the apical and radial rates
c) difference between systolic and diastolic readings
d) degree of ventricular contraction in relation to output
35. The nurse should teach clients with peripheral vascular disease to stop smoking because nicotine:
a) constricts the superficial vessels, dilating the deep vessels
b) constricts the peripheral vessels and increases the force of flow
c) dilates the superficial vessels but constricts the collateral circulation
d) dilates the peripheral vessels, causing a reflex constrictions of visceral vessels
36. When obtaining data from a client with thromboangitis obliterans (Burger's disease), the nurse would expect the client to demonstrate or report:
a) easy fatigue of extremities, continuous claudification
b) general blanching of skin and intermittent claudification
c) intermittent claudification, burning pain after to cold
d) burning pain precipitated by cold exposure, fatigue, blanching of skin
37. Prolonged bed rest after surgery appears to promote hemostasis, particularly in th deep veins of the calves. The most likely pathologic result of such hemostasis may be thrombus formation and:
a) cerebral embolism
b) coronary occlusion
c) pulmonary embolism
d) dry gangrene of a limb
38. A client is being instructed of the use of elastic stockings. The nurse should teach the client that the stockings should be:
a) alternately kept on 2 hours and off 2 hours
b) Worn only at night when activity is lessened
c) put on before getting out of bed in the morning
d) left in place until the physician advises otherwise
39. The nurse realizes that a pacemaker is used in some clients to serve the function normally performed by the :
a) AV node
b) SA node
c) bundle of his
d) accelerator nerves to the heart
40. During a cardiac arrest, the nurse and the arrest team must keep in mind the:
a) age of the client
b) time the client is anoxic
c) emergency medications available
d) heart rate of the client before the arrest
41. Antibodies are produced by:
a) eosinophils
b) plasma cells
c) errthrocytes
d) lymphocytes
42. Infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with:
a) rheumatic fever
b) hepatitis type A
c) spinal meningitis
d) rheumatoid arthritis
43. A client is suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following is a characteristic sign of SLE?
a) rash on the face across the bridge of the nose and on the cheeks
b) fatigue
c) fever
d) elevated red blood cell count
44. A client has requested and undergone testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The client now asks what will be done next, since the results of two enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) tests have been positive. The nurse's response is based on the understanding that:
a) the client will probably have a bone marrow biopsy done
b) a western blot will be done to confirm these findings
c) a CD4 cell count will be done to measure T-helper lymphocytes
d) the client will be definitively diagnosed as HIV positive at this point
45. A nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse detects early infection with Pneumocystis carinii by monitoring the client for which of the following clinical manifestations?
a) dyspnea on exertion
b) dyspnea at rest
c) fever
d) cough
46. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has a concurrent diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The nurse notes, during the assessment, that the client has enlarged lymph nodes. The nurse interprets that:
a) the client has disseminated histoplasmosis infection
b) this is a side effect of the medications given to treat AIDS
c) this indicates that the histoplasmosis is resolving
d) the client probably has yet another infection that is developing
47. A nurse is caring for the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is experiencing night fever and night sweats. Which of the following nursing interventions would be the least helpful in managing this symptoms?
a) keep a change of bed linens nearby in case they are needed
b) administer an antipyretic after the client spikes the fever
c) make sure the pillow has a plastic cover
d) keep liquids at the bedside
48. A client exposed to human immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) approximately 3 months ago has seroconverted to an HIV positive status. The nurse anticipates that the client will experience which of the following at this time?
a) oral lesions
b) purplish skin lesions
c) chronic cough
d) no signs and symptoms
49. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has raised, dark purplish lesions on the trunk of the body. The nurse anticipates that which of the following procedures will be done to confirm whether these lesions are result from Kaposi's sarcoma?
a) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
b) western blot
c) skin biopsy
d) lung biopsy
50. A nurse participating in a health fair is setting up a booth on prevention of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission. A poster is planned that will list sexual behaviors in one of two columns, rated "safe" and "not safe". Which of the following behaviors would the nurse place in the "not safe" column?
a) use of latex condoms
b) use of "natural skin" condoms
c) abstinence
d) mutual monogamy
51. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. The nurse would make which of the following dietary alterations for this client to enhance nutritional intake?
a) avoid dairy products and red meat
b) plan large, nutritious meals
c) add spices to food for added flavor
d) serve foods while they are very warm
52. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has a respiratory infection from Pneumocystis carinii. In evaluating the documented plan of care for the nursing diagnosis Impaired Gas Exchange, which of the following would not be considered by the nurse to be a positive outcome criterion for this client?
a) is free of complaints of shortness of breath
b) expectorates secretions easily
c) has clear breath sounds
d) limits fluid intake
53. A client with pemphigus vulgaris is being seen in the clinic on a regular basis. the nurse plans care based on which of the following descriptions of this condition?
a) the presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by a virus
b) an autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis
c) the presence of red raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
d) the presence of tiny red vesicles
54. A client is brought to the emergency room and is experiencing an anaphylaxis reaction from eating shellfish. The nurse prepares for which of the following initial actions?
a) administering epinephrine (adrenalin)
b) administering a corticosteroid
c) maintaining a patent airway
d) instructing the client on the importance of obtaining a Medic-Alert bracelet
55. A nurse administers an injection to a client with a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). After administering the medication, the nurse disposes the used needle by:
a) placing it in a puncture-resistant container
b) laying the needle and syringe on the bedside table and carefully recapping the needle
c) asking the client to recap the needle
d) recapping the needle before placing it in a puncture-resistant container
56. A community health nurse, conducting a research study, is identifying clients in the community at risk for latex allergy. Which client population is at most risk for developing this type of allergy?
a) the homeless
b) persons living in a group home
c) children in day-care centers
d) hairdressers
57. A nurse is instructing a client in how to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse tells the client:
a) to examine the testicles while lying down
b) that the best time for the examination is after a shower
c) to gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
d) that testicular exams should be done at least every 6 months
58. A community nurse is conducting a health promotion program at a local school and is discussing the risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following, if identified by a student as a risk factor, indicates a need for further instructions
a) viral factors
b) stress
c) low-fat and high-fiber diets
d) exposure to radiations
59. A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. A nurse identifies which interventions as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
a) ambulation three times daily
b) monitoring temperature
c) monitoring the platelet count
d) monitoring for pathological fractures
60. a nurse is monitoring the laboratory results of a client preparing to receive chemotherapy. The nurse would determine that the white blood cell (WBC) count is normal if which of the following results were present?
a) 3000 to 8000
b) 4000 10,000
c) 7000 to 15,000
d) 2000 to 5000
61. A community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients about breast self- examination (BSE). The nurse would instruct the clients to perform the exam:
a) at the onset on menstruation
b) one week after menstruation begins
c) every month during ovulation
d) weekly at the same time of day
62. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse avoids which of the following in the care of this client?
a) removal of antiembolism stockings twice a day
b) assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises
c) elevating the knee gatch on the bed
d) checking placement of pneumatic compression boots
63. A client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor. Several diagnostic tests are prescribed. A nurse understands that which of the following test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
a) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) computerized tomography (CT) scan
c) abdominal ultrasound
d) biopsy of the tumor
64. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks a nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?
a) malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
b) altered red blood cell production
c) altered production of lymph nodes
d) malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone
65. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the following would the nurse expect to specifically note in this disorder?
a) decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
b) increased white blood cells
c) increased calcium level
d) decreased blood urea and nitrogen (BUN)
66. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse includes which priority intervention in the plan of care?
a) coughing and deep breathing
b) forcing fluids
c) monitoring the red blood cell count
d) providing frequent oral care
67. A client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:
a) constipation
b) dyspnea
c) sore throat
d) diarrhea
68. A cervical radiation implant is placed in a client for treatment of cervical cancer. A nurse initiates what most appropriate activity order for this client?
a) out of bed in a chair only
b) ambulate to the bathroom only
c) bed rest
d) out of bed ad lib
69. A client hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, a nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial reaction by the nurse is to:
a) call the physician
b) pickup the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet
c) reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
d) pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container
70. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing hematologic toxicity as a result of chemotherapy. The nurse develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
a) restrict all visitors
b) restrict fluid intake
c) insert an indwelling catheter to prevent skin down
d) restrict fresh fruits and vegetables in the diet
71. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving chemotherapy. The platelet count is 10,000/mm3. On the basis of this laboratory value, the priority nursing assessment is which of the following?
a) assess level of consciousness
b) assess temperature
c) assess bowel sounds
d) assess skin turgor
72. During the admission assessment of a client with advanced ovarian cancer, a nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
a) hypermenorrhea
b) abdominal distention
c) diarrhea
d) abdominal bleeding
73. A client reports to a nurse that when performing testicular self-examination (TSE), he found a lump the size and shape of a pea. The most appropriate response to the client is which of the following?
a) that's important to report even though it might not be serious
b) that could be cancer. I'll ask the doctor to examine you
c) let me know if its gets bigger next month
d) lumps like that are normal; don't worry
74. A hospice nurse visits a client who is dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the client remarks, "If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter's graduation, I'll be ready to die." Which phase of coping is htis client experiencing?
a) denial
b) bargaining
c) depression
d) anger
75. A nurse is caring for a client after modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?
a) sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
b) pain at the incisional site
c) complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
d) arm edema on the operative site
76. A client with leukemia is receiving busulfan (myleran). Allopurinol (zyloprim) is prescribed for the client. The purpose of the allopurinol is to:
a) prevent gouty arthritis
b) prevent hyperuricemia
c) prevent diarrhea
d) prevent stomatitis
77. a gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric tube (NGT). Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
a) notify the physician
b) continue to monitor the drainage
c) measure abdominal girth
d) irrigate the NGT
78. A nurse is caring for a client with cancer of the prostate after a prostatectomy. The nurse provides discharge instructions to the client and tells the client to:
a) notify the physician if small blood clots are noticed during urination
b) avoid driving the car for 1 week
c) restrict fluid intake to prevent incontinence
d) avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds for at least 6 weeks
79. A nurse is reviewing the history of a client with bladder cancer. The nurse expects to note documentation of which most common symptom of this type of cancer?
a) frequency of urination
b) urgency of urination
c) hematuria
d) dysuria
80. A nurse is caring for a client after a radical mastectomy. Which of the following nursing interventions would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm?
a) placing cool compresses on the affected arm
b) elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level
c) maintaining an IV site below the antecubital area on the affected site
d) avoiding arm exercise in the immediate postoperative period
81. A nurse is preparing a client for mammography. The nurse tells the client:
a) that mammography takes about 1 hour
b) to avoid the use of deodorants, powders, or creams on the day of the test
c) that there is no discomfort associated with the procedure
d) to maintain an NPO status on the day of the test
82. Which of the following would be considered an iatrogenic cause of cancer?
a) ionizing radiation from radon
b) ionizing radiation from uranium ore
c) x-rays used to treat a tumor
d) ultraviolet radiation from the sun
83. An epidemiologic study or investigation is to be conducted on workers in uranium mines who are currently free of any cancer. Subjects are to be monitored over a 5 year period, and the incidence rates of certain types of cancers are to be determined. This study designs illustrates what kind of research study?
a) prospective study
b) historical retrospective study
c) retrospective study
d) historical prospective study
84. cancer prevalence is defined as:
a) the likelihood cancer will occur in a lifetime
b) the number of persons with cancer at a given point in time
c) the number of new cancers in a year
d) all cancer cases more than 5 years old
85. Which of the following groups would benefit most from education regarding potential risk factors for melanoma?
a) adults older than 35 years of age
b) senior citizens who have been repeatedly exposed to the effects of ultraviolet A and ultraviolet B rays
c) parents with children
employees of a chemical factory
86. While being educated by the nurse about self-examination, a client asks what the rationale is for moving her arms in different positions while standing in front of a mirror. The nurse explains that these positions are used to:
a) increase the examiner's comfort during procedure
b) more easily diagnose any masses
c) determine whether there is any nipple discharge with movement
d) emphasize any change in shape or contour of the breast
87. A 17 year-old, sexually active female client is seen in the family planning clinic and requests oral contraceptives. Before examination, the nurse should explain the importance of regular pap-smears. This recommendation is based on the current screening guidelines of the American Cancer Society (ACS) for pap-smears, which states that:
a) pap smears are recommended every other year
b) if four consecutive annual pap smears are negative, the client should schedule repeat pap smears every 3 years
c) the initial pap smear should be done at 18, or earlier if the woman is sexually active
d) if four consecutive smears are negative, the client should request a colposcopy
88. A client with a family history of cancer asks the nurse what the single most important risk factor for cancer is. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse discuss?
a) family history
b) lifestyle choices
c) age
d) menopause or hormonal events
89. A nurse who is teaching smoking cessation programs to healthy adult is participating in what type of prevention activity?
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) nonspecific
90. Which of the following best describes a client's response to chronic pain?
a) elevated vital signs, physical inactivity, facial grimacing, and periods of anxiety
b) normal vital signs, physical inactivity, and normal facial expressions
c) normal vital signs, normal facial expressions, and moaning
d) elevated vital signs, grimacing, and depression
91. Which of the following reasons explains why meperidine (demerol) is not recommended for chronic cancer related pain?
a) it has a high potential for abuse
b) it has agonist-antagonist properties
c) it must be given intramuscularly to be effective
d) it contains a metabolite that causes seizures
92. Which of the following symptoms is associated with anemia?
a) decreased salivation
b) bradycardia
c) cold intolerance
d) nausea
93. a pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for treatment of non-small-cell lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves removal of:
a) an entire lung field
b) a small, wedge-shaped lung surface
c) one lobe of a lung
d) one or more segments of a lung surface
94. Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with pruritus caused by cancer or the treatments?
a) administration of antihistamines
b) steroids
c) silk sheets
d) medicated cool baths
95. Clients who are newly diagnosed with cancer have many fears and concerns. Which of the following issues is a primary concern?
a) ability to perform in usual roles
b) cost of treatments
c) prognosis
d) pain
96. The most effective resource for support for clients with cancer who are grieving is:
a) health care professionals
b) family
c) clergy
d) community support groups
97. A clinic nurse is providing home care instructions to a client who has been diagnosed with a latex allergy. The nurse most appropriately instructs the client to avoid:
a) outdoor activities as much as possible
b) going to parties
c) the use of condoms
d) sunlight
98. A home care nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the client's risk factors associated with the allergy, the nurse questions the client about an allergy to which food item?
a) milk
b) bananas
c) yogurt
d) eggs
99. A home care nurse is assigned to visit a client who returned to home from the emergency room after treatment for a sprained ankle. The nurse notes that the client was sent home with crutches and needs instructions about crutch walking. On admission assessment, the nurse discovers that the client has an allergy to latex. Before providing instructions about crutch walking, the nurse most appropriately:
a) contact the physician
b) covers the crutch pads with cloth
c) tells the client that the crutches must be removed from the house immediately
d) calls the local medical supply store and asks for a cane to be delivered
100. A home care nurse is ordering dressing supplies for a client who has an allergy to latex. The nurse asks the medical supply personnel to deliver which of the following?
a) adhesive bandages
b) band-aid dressings
c) cotton pads and silk tape
d) brown ace bandages
ANSWERS:
1) b ..... 2) a ..... 3) a ..... 4) a ..... 5) d
6) b ..... 7) d ..... 8) c ..... 9) d ..... 10) d
11) c ..... 12) b ..... 13) c ..... 14) c ..... 15) d
16) b ..... 17) a ..... 18) b ..... 19) a ..... 20) c
21) b ..... 22) d ..... 23) c ..... 24) a ..... 25) a
26) c ..... 27) c ..... 28) a ..... 29) b ..... 30) a
31) c ..... 32) c ..... 33) c ..... 34) c ..... 35) b
36) c ..... 37) c ..... 38) c ..... 39) b .....40) b
41) b ..... 42) a ..... 43) a ..... 44) b ..... 45) d
46) a ..... 47) b ..... 48) d ..... 49) c ..... 50) b
51) a ..... 52) d ..... 53) b ..... 54) c ..... 55) a
56) d ..... 57) b ..... 58) c ..... 59) c ..... 60) b
61) b ..... 62) c ..... 63) d ..... 64) d ..... 65) c
66) b ..... 67) c ..... 68) c ..... 69) d ..... 70) d
71) a ..... 72) b ..... 73) a ..... 74) b ..... 75) d
76) b ..... 77) b ..... 78) d ..... 79) c ..... 80) b
81) b ..... 82) c ..... 83) a ..... 84) b ..... 85) c
86) d ..... 87) c ..... 88) c ..... 89) a ..... 90) b
91) d ..... 92) c ..... 93) a ..... 94) d ..... 95) c
96) b ..... 97) c ..... 98) b ..... 99) b ..... 100) c
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- Gastrointestinal, Renal and Reproductive System
- Integrated Comprehensive Test (Curative)
Psychiatric Practice Test
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